linkedin-skill-assessments-quizzes

IT Operations

Q1. You are configuring a Wi-Fi base station using DHCP. Which items should you set or change?

A
Reset administrator password.
Set network name.
Set network security.
Set network password.
B
Reset administrator password.
Set network name.
Set network password.
C
Set network name.
Set network password.
Assign DNS servers.
D
Change administrator account name.
Set network password.
Set network name.
Assign DNS servers.

Q2. Can you connect a DisplayPort monitor to a USB-C port on your computer?

Yes. The DisplayPort cable plugs directly into the USB connector.
Yes. An adapter or dongle may be required.
No. While you can rig a connection, video quality will be poor.
No. The two standards are incompatible.

Q3. What is the I/O panel?

the location where expansion cards can connect to peripherals
a cluster of ports and connectors found on the back of the computer case
the switches that turn on, sleep, and turn off the computer
the portion of the motherboard where non-power cables connect

Q4. The computer consistently boots into Safe Mode. How would you address this issue?

Edit the Registry key that controls the boot sequence.
Hold the Shift key as Windows boots.
Check the MSCONFIG utility to ensure that Normal boot is selected.
Fix the issue in Safe Mode that is causing the system to restart in this mode.

Q5. Which choice is not a typical adjustment found on a monitor?

resolution
color temperature
contrast
brightness

Q6. Assuming that the gateway, modem, and switch are separate units, in what order should a small office or home office LAN be restarted?

Modem
Gateway
Switch

Modem
Switch
Gateway

Gateway
Switch

The order is not important.

Q7. A client needs to secure their cafe’s wireless network, which is used only by employees. What is the best approach for a finite list of devices?

Limit access to specific MAC addresses.
Do not broadcast the SSID.
Apply a metered connection.
Apply a password.

Q8. Which hardware port would not be found on a typical gateway?

WAN
USB
LAN
uplink

Q9. The recent Windows update introduced some quirks in the system. How can you enter the Windows Recovery Environment to recover from the update?

Hold the Shift key when selecting the Restart command.
Restart in Safe Mode where the Recovery item is located on the Start menu.
Press the any key at the boot screen.
Go to the Task Manager Startup tab.

Q10. Which components are typically found on the motherboard?

basic I/O graphics NIC battery expansion slots
basic I/O cooling NIC graphics expansion slots
basic I/O graphics NIC mass storage expansion slots
basic I/O graphics NIC power supply expansion slots

Q11. What does the acronym RAID refer to?

Repeating Architecture for Internal Drives
Recoverable Advanced Integration and Duplication
Redundant Array of Independent Disks
Replicated Array of Internal Devices

Q12. To which internal component does the illustrated (P1) connector attach?

motherboard
I/O panel
power supply
primary mass storage

Q13. Your computer boots at very low resolution that cannot be increased through display settings. What is the most likely solution?

The connection between the display and the computer is loose.
You need to reinstall the display drivers.
You need to replace your monitor.
Some of your RAM is failing.

Q14. To which choice can the wget program be considered similar?

tracert
netstat
ping
cURL

Q15. Does an incognito window prevent websites from tracking your activity on the web?

No. Incognito mode only prevents the site from appearing in your browser history.
Yes. Incognito mode encrypts data packets, making it difficult for websites to track your activity.
No. Some websites track by ID, and if you sign into a site even in incognito, your activity is known.
Yes. Incognito mode blocks all cookies and tracking IDs and suppresses browser history.

Q16. What must you confirm before performing a processor upgrade?

The new processor is compatible with the current motherboard.
The new processor is the same type as the old.
The new processor is compatible with the operating system.
The new processor fits into the old processor’s slot.

Q17. Which type of storage has the fastest data access speeds?

Secure Sockets Layer drive
solid-state drive
serial attached storage device
SCSI drive

Q18. Which peripheral is most likely to require entering a Bluetooth pairing passcode?

A. Keyboard
B. Mouse
C. Headset
D. Printer

Explanation: Many Bluetooth keyboards (especially older or “legacy” models) require entering a pairing/passcode during initial pairing. Mice and headsets can require pairing too, but keyboards historically + most commonly use a numeric pairing code. This question is somewhat hardware-dependent — see PR discussion for edge-cases and references.

Q19. Walt’s computer is several years old and he wants to ensure that the system works until he gets a replacement. What should he do first?

Run a file check daily.
Obtain an extended warranty.
Back up his data.
Ensure that the system is protected against malware.

Q20. Which statement best describes a drive?

A. A drive is hardware that reads/writes data and often accepts removable media (e.g., disk, CD).
B. A drive is a software component that manages files.
C. A drive is a network service for file transfer.
D. A drive is an encryption method.

Explanation: A drive is a physical device that performs read/write operations; removable-media drives (CD/DVD, removable disk) accept media, while non-removable drives (SSD/HDD) provide storage without separate media.

Q21. Mass storage inside a desktop computer case is usually found where?

in an expansion slot
attached to the front of the case
in a drive cage
on the motherboard

Q31. Which device is used to connect computers on a local network (LAN) at Layer 2?

A. Switch (Layer 2)
B. Server
C. Router
D. Gateway

Explanation: A network switch operates at Layer 2 and forwards frames between devices on the same LAN. Servers provide services but do not serve the traffic-forwarding role of a switch.

Q43. If you move a user’s data and installed programs from one system to another, this process is called:

A. Migration
B. Profile transfer
C. Backup
D. Restore

Explanation: A migration moves data and installed applications/settings from one environment to another; a “profile transfer” generally refers only to user profile data.

Q51. To access extra keys or alternate key functions on some laptop keyboards (compact layouts), which key is typically used?

A. Alt/Option
B. Ctrl
C. Fn
D. Shift

Explanation: The Fn (Function) key is commonly used to access alternate functions on laptop/compact keyboards (media keys, secondary key legends). Alt/Option performs different roles and is not the usual way to access alternate hardware keysets.

Q52. If a PC repeatedly boots into Safe Mode, what is the most appropriate next step?

A. Reboot immediately and hope it resolves.
B. Investigate the cause (Safe Mode indicates the system detected a problem).
C. Reinstall the OS right away.
D. Ignore and continue using.

Explanation: Persistent boots into Safe Mode indicate underlying problems (driver, hardware, or config). Investigate logs, recent changes and safe-mode diagnostics before opting to reinstall or only restart. (A quick restart can be used as a test, but repeated Safe Mode boots should be diagnosed.)

Q53. Which security tool can be doubled up to offer additional protection without being redundant?

account protection
firewall
antivirus
backup

Q54. The mouse pointer is behaving erratically. What should you do first?

Use the keyboard instead
Restart the computer
Clean the mouse, specifically its optical sensor, and ensure that you are using it on the proper surface
Disassemble the mouse to look for loose parts or corrosion

Q55. How many wire pairs are in a CAT-5 cable?

Q56. What is the difference between a USB hub and a powered USB hub?

The powered hub has a power supply and is suitable for running powered peripherals.
A powered USB hub is found on the computer case; all other hubs are non-powered.
The powered hub supplies 12V of power, whereas the standard hub only 5V.
Powered hubs are external to the computer case.

Q57. Which of the following users has the smartest approach to online security?

Jarred uses a unique password for each site.
Jen uses the same password on each site, but with two-factor authentication.
Jason uses a unique password for each site along with two-factor authentication.
Jackie uses the same password on each site, but with a different user name.

Q58. Which is an example of a phishing attack?

Yousef sees an onscreen notification indicating that an operating system is pending and instructing him to click a link to continue.
After visiting a website, Carla notices that her computer is running slowly.
Bob receives an email from his bank, asking him to click a link to verify his account.
Ellen’s email inbox is flooded with unwanted advertising.

Q59. You receive a malware warning regarding a specific file. Which approach should you take to ensure that you do not have false positive?

Restart in Safe Mode to remove the file.
Remove the file.
Run a thorough scan to validate the results.
Quarantine the file.

Q60. What are the best tools to use for cleaning a computer?

Handheld vacuum cleaner, air can, soft flashlight.
air can, microfiber cloth, alcohol wipes, flashlight.
handheld vacuum cleaner, ammonia, alcohol, microfiber cloth.
air can, screwdriver, soft cloth, household cleaner.

Q61. A computer power supply is measured in _.

watts
hertz
amperes
volts

Q62. If you had a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask, how many usable IP addresses would you have for hosts?

Q63. Tania was told to change a setting in the UEFI. How is it accessed?

by using the System Configuration Utility (MSCONFIG)
from the BIOS
from the computer’s startup menu
on the network

Q64. What is the technical reason why you must properly eject media?

File I/O is buffered. If you remove the media before the buffer is cleared, files remain open and potentially corrupt.
The Storage Inventory Manager (SIM) can lose its drive references, which may corrupt other storage in the system.
The drive must receive the eject signal and turn itself off, dropping the DTR signal and indicating the media is safe to remove.
The computer must stop the 5-volt signal to media, otherwise the drive may short.

Q65. Which part of the network assigns an IP address?

the modem using TCP/IP protocol
the gateway/router using DHCP
the device’s NIC based on the MAC address
IP addresses are always assigned manually

Q66. Expansion cards follow which current interface standard?

MCA
PCMCIA
ISA
PCIe

Q67. Which action triggers a UAC warning?

all settings changes in Windows
any unauthorized access to the computer system
an attempt to change a setting with consequences that affect the entire system
any action involving the user account, such as a password reset

Q68. Which choice is not a current mass storage type?

SSD
MO
HDD
NVMe

Q69. Which statement most accurately describes the north-bridge or host-bridge?

It is a high priority connection to the processor, also called the Memory Controller Hub.
It has been integrated into the southbridge to provide support for the CPU.
It is the peripheral and I/O controller, connected to the processor via the southbridge.
It provides mathematical and 3D physics support for the CPU in the absence of a GPU.

Q70. Which characters are not allowed in a filename?

anything other than a letter, number, or space
spaces, periods, and commas
\, /, :, ?, and *
!, ^, &, (,), and "

Q71. What is the most direct way to change the desktop background in Windows OS?

Alter your user account settings or preferences.
Right-click a blank part of the desktop.
Run programs full-screen.
Use Settings (Windows) or Preferences (Mac).

Q72. Which I/O components are typically found in a chipset on the motherboard?

USB, SATA and internal communications
display adapter, networking, audio, and basic I/O
the processor, RAM, and expansion cards
I/O components are not on the motherboard. They are located on the rear of the case

Q73. What does the acronym RAID refer to?

Redudant Array of Independent Disk
Repeating Architecture for Internal Drives
Recoverable Advanced Integration and Duplication
Replicated Array of Internal Devices

Q74. What is an example of a top-level domain (TLD)?

NET
HTTP
//
DNS

Q75. Jan is setting up a coffee shop’s wireless network. Given the number of Wi-Fi networks within range, which are the best choices for a 2.4GHz Wi-Fi channel?

3, 6, 9
3, 10, 12
1, 6, 11
1, 2, 8

Q76. When elevated access is required, what steps must a user take?

Type the administrator account password.
Hold the Shift key and try again.
Sign out and sign in again with an administrator account.
User account permissions are elevated in Settings or Preferences.

Q77. What is a duplex printer?

a printer that also acts as a scanner, copier. and fax machine
a printer with automatic and manual feeding mechanism
a printer than can print on both sides of a sheet of paper
a printer has two paper trays

Q78. Which choice is not an internal computer upgrade?

primary storage
I/O devices
memory
expansion card

Q79. In a hybrid cloud architecture, what is the main challenge of maintaining consistent configuration states across on-premises and cloud environments?

Limited network throughput between environments
Configuration drift due to asynchronous state management and differing IaC tool versions
Incompatible authentication mechanisms between providers
Lack of hardware abstraction at the virtualization layer

Q80. In enterprise IT monitoring, what problem does “cardinality explosion” refer to?

The exponential growth in metric series when combining multiple label dimensions (e.g., host, service, region)
The overuse of alerting thresholds across distributed systems
The inability to track metrics due to missing time-series indexes
The merging of multiple metric stores into a single pipeline

Q81. In a CI/CD pipeline, why is using immutable infrastructure considered best practice?

It allows manual patching of existing servers to maintain consistency
It ensures that each deployment creates a new environment instance, preventing configuration drift
It eliminates the need for orchestration or automation tools
It enables incremental updates instead of full rebuilds

Q82. What issue arises when using synchronous microservice calls in a globally distributed production system?

Increased CPU utilization in backend servers
Reduced need for caching layers
Simplified tracing and logging mechanisms
High inter-service latency and cascading failures under network partitions

Q83. In container orchestration systems like Kubernetes, what does the control plane primarily manage?

The desired state of the cluster, ensuring workloads match declared configurations via reconciliation loops
The real-time network routing between pods
The physical resource allocation at the hardware level
The filesystem synchronization across distributed nodes

Q84. In distributed systems observability, what is the primary purpose of implementing distributed tracing with context propagation?

To record only local system metrics
To replicate log data across all services
To track a single request across multiple services by passing unique identifiers through each span
To store trace data directly within the message queue

Q85. Why might an SRE team prefer a Service Level Objective (SLO) expressed as an error budget over a 100% uptime target?

Because it balances reliability with development velocity and provides a measurable tolerance for controlled risk
Because it enforces stricter deployment rules in CI/CD pipelines
Because it automatically configures monitoring alerts based on uptime
Because it eliminates the need for any downtime management

Q86. What operational issue is most likely if a message broker in an event-driven system begins showing a consistent lag in queue depth?

Excessive horizontal scaling of producers
Consumers are processing messages slower than the production rate, causing backpressure
Queue visibility timeout misconfiguration
Duplicate message publishing from producers

Q87. In large-scale infrastructure management, what’s a key operational advantage of GitOps over traditional configuration management approaches?

It replaces container orchestration with simple shell automation
It provides a declarative, version-controlled, and auditable single source of truth for infrastructure state
It allows runtime state changes without version tracking
It relies solely on imperative deployment scripts

Q88. When autoscaling a stateful application, why can horizontal scaling lead to inconsistency issues?

Because new replicas may lack synchronized persistent state or shared volume access, leading to data divergence
Because CPU requests cannot be adjusted dynamically
Because vertical scaling is disabled by default
Because service discovery protocols fail to register new instances

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